PASS GUARANTEED QUIZ UNPARALLELED PRMIA - 8011 - EXAMCOLLECTION CREDIT AND COUNTERPARTY MANAGER (CCRM) CERTIFICATE EXAM QUESTIONS ANSWERS

Pass Guaranteed Quiz Unparalleled PRMIA - 8011 - Examcollection Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam Questions Answers

Pass Guaranteed Quiz Unparalleled PRMIA - 8011 - Examcollection Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam Questions Answers

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PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam Sample Questions (Q62-Q67):

NEW QUESTION # 62
When considering a request for a loan from a retail customer, which of the following factors is relevant for a bank to consider:

  • A. All of the above
  • B. The credit worthiness of the retail customer
  • C. The contribution this new loan would bring to total portfolio risk
  • D. The other retail loans in its portfolio

Answer: A

Explanation:
The credit worthiness of the retail customer is certainly a factor for the bank to consider as it will need to price the loan to cover the expectation of default. At the same time, it will need to look at other loans in its portfolio as to avoid unacceptable concentration risk. A corollary of the same theme is that the bank will need to take a portfolio view of the loan request and consider its contribution to total portfolio risk. Therefore all the choices are appropriate considerations for the bank and Choice 'd' is the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 63
According to the Basel II standard, which of the following conditions must be satisfied before a bank can use
'mark-to-model' for securities in its trading book?
I. Marking-to-market is not possible
II. Market inputs for the model should be sourced in line with market prices III. The model should have been created by the front office IV. The model should be subject to periodic review to determine the accuracy of its performance

  • A. I, II, III and IV
  • B. II and III
  • C. I, II and IV
  • D. III and IV

Answer: C

Explanation:
According to Basel II, where marking-to-market is not possible, banks may mark-to-model, where this can be demonstrated to be prudent. Marking-to-model is defined as any valuation which has to be benchmarked, extrapolated or otherwise calculated from a market input. When marking to model, an extra degree of conservatism is appropriate. Supervisory authorities will consider thefollowing in assessing whether a mark- to-model valuation is prudent:
* Senior management should be aware of the elements of the trading book which are subject to mark to model and should understand the materiality of the uncertainty this creates in the reporting of the risk/performance of the business.
* Market inputs should be sourced, to the extent possible, in line with market prices. The appropriateness of the market inputs for the particular position being valued should be reviewed regularly.
* Where available, generally accepted valuation methodologies for particular products should be used as far as possible.
* Where the model is developed by the institution itself, it should be based on appropriate assumptions, which have been assessed and challenged by suitably qualified parties independent of the development process. The model should be developed or approved independently of the front office. It should be independently tested.
This includes validating the mathematics, the assumptions and the software implementation.
* There should be formal change control procedures in place and a secure copy of the model should be held and periodically used to check valuations.
* Risk management should be aware of the weaknesses of the models used and how best to reflect those in the valuation output.
* The model should be subject to periodic review to determine the accuracy of its performance (e.g. assessing continued appropriateness of the assumptions, analysis of P&L versus risk factors, comparison of actual close out values to model outputs).
* Valuation adjustments should be made as appropriate, for example, to cover the uncertainty of the model valuation.
The model should be created independent of the front office, and not by it. Therefore statement III does not represent an appropriate choice. Choice 'a' is the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 64
Which of the following statements are true:
I. Liquidity risks during time of crisis may be exacerbated by large collateral calls continuing over a period of time.
II. Stress tests are always separately modeled from VaR computations which cannot deal with stress scenarios of the kind considered in stress tests.
III. A maximum loss scenario considers the maximum possible loss given a 'plausibility constraint' that is based upon the joint probability of such a loss happening

  • A. I and III
  • B. II and III
  • C. I and II
  • D. I, II and III

Answer: A

Explanation:
If VaR is calculated based upon historical simulations, and these simulations are designed as to include all stress scenarios of interest, then VaR and stress tests can be a part of an integrated risk measurement system.
Therefore it is not correct to say that stress tests are always separately modeled from VaR and II is false. I and III are true, and therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 65
A Bank Holding Company (BHC) is invested in an investment bank and a retail bank. The BHC defaults for certain if either the investment bank or the retail bank defaults. However, the BHC can also default on its own without either the investment bank or the retail bank defaulting. The investment bank and the retail bank's defaults are independent of each other, with a probability of default of 0.05 each. The BHC's probability of default is 0.11.
What is the probability of default of both the BHC and the investment bank? What is the probability of the BHC's default provided both the investment bank and the retail bank survive?

  • A. 0.08 and 0.0475
  • B. 0.05 and 0.0125
  • C. 0.0475 and 0.10
  • D. 0.11 and 0

Answer: B

Explanation:
Since the BHC always fails when the investment bank fails, the joint probability of default of the two is merely the probability of the investment bank failing, ie 0.05.
The probability of just the BHC failing, given that both the investment bank and the retail bank have survived will be equal to 0.11 - (0.05+0.05-0.05*0.05) = 0.0125. (The easiest way to understand this would be to consider a venn diagram, where the area under the largest circle is 0.11, and there are two intersecting circles inside this larger circle, each with an area of 0.05 and their intersection accounting for 0.05*0.05. We need to calculate the area outside of the two smaller circles, but within the larger circle representing the BHC).
Refer diagram below, please excuse the awful colors.
A diagram of a bank Description automatically generated


NEW QUESTION # 66
Which of the following statements are true:
I. It is usual to set a very high confidence level when estimating VaR for capital requirements.
II. For model validation, very high VaR confidence levels are used to minimize excess losses.
III. For limit setting for managing day to day positions, it is usual to set VaR confidence levels that are neither too low to be exceeded too often, nor too high as to be never exceeded.
IV. The Basel accord requirements for market risk capital require the use of a time horizon of 1 year.

  • A. I and III
  • B. II and III
  • C. I and IV
  • D. III and IV

Answer: A

Explanation:
This questions deals with the appropriate levels of the holding period and confidence levels for VaR estimates. These depend upon the use the VaR estimate is intended to be put to - so when calculating VaR levels for capital requirements, or for maintaining credit ratings, very high levels of confidence are generally used. On the contrary, when setting limits or validating a model, a few excess loss situations are not only acceptable but actually desirable, and therefore lower levels of confidence are used.When it comes to the holding period, that may be mandated, as it is under Basel II as being a 10 day period. For other cases, it may be a horizon roughly corresponding to a period in which positions may be liquidated in an orderly day, which could be just one day for highly liquid markets, or a week or more for larger positions in illiquid markets.
Therefore statements I and III are true and the others are false. Therefore the only correct answer is Choice 'b'.


NEW QUESTION # 67
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